Whose_the_English_Language_Is_

The English language proper belongs to the people who dwell south of Hadrian’s Wall, east of the Welsh hills and north of the English Channel...Their (foreigners) choice is to accept one authority or else make their own language.” (Taken from New Statesman, June 25, 1927) On the one hand this statement that the home of the English language is based on historical boarders, England. On the other hand it also says that it is proper only of people who live there and others have to choose whether they want to accept this language or they want to make their own one. But it’s not so simple. There are several questions. First of all, why the home of English should be only England' We know that English has developed from all the languages which, in fact, had been there a long time before. I mean all the languages such as Gaelic, Welsh, and others. Therefore the home of the English language is whole Great Britain. This evocate next question- why it should be proper only of people who “dwell south of Hadrian’s Wall, east of the Welsh hills and north of the English Channel”' There always have been dialects in Scotland and other parts of Great Britain so why suddenly English should be property only of these people' They probably wanted to distinguish English used in England from other dialects which are spoken for example in America. But it seems to me as superior behaviour. However, can we even talk about proper of language' The fact of matter is that no one can possess a language but from another point of view everyone who is speaking a certain language can say that it is his property. Although it is true that if some foreigner told me that he possess the Czech language as well as I do I wouldn’t agree at all. But this case is different. The main difference is that these so called “foreigners” are people speaking English but with dialect. It’s the same as Czech and Moravians. What’s more other people those who are living in this defined area should accept the English language or as it is stated “make their own language”. Firstly, is there a reason to accept the English language as authority' It depends on what would the acceptance of the English language mean for them. If it means that they would have to accept some political supervision of England or they would have to speak the ‘England English’' England has always been the main centre of Great Britain but by forcing other parts of not only Great Britain but also whole Commonwealth to accept the authority could empower England and its place as political centre. And if others would accept the English language would they really start to speak the English used only in England or would they still use their dialect' I think that in the case of acceptance they would not change their language because why should they do it as far as no one will control them. Secondly, why those who don’t accept this specific English should make their own language' Those people already have their own language and it is the English language but with the dialect. They spoke it a hundred years ago as they speak it now so there isn’t a reason why they should make some new language. And on one can persuade them or force by power to not speak their dialect. In my opinion this statement is discrimination of all people who don’t live in England. I would even say that it’s chauvinistic. The one who claims that is emasculating the language because having so many dialects is making the language more interesting. Making the English language which is spoken in England formal and other dialects informal is much more reasonable.